John/17-14 "I have given them Your word; and the world has hated them, because they are not of the world, even as I am not of the world.

Commentary on John 17:13 to 22 --Christians are to be no part of this world means.
Jesus added the words "even as" he was not of the world; but, of course, there was a difference. Jesus was not of the world in the sense of his having been before the world was. The disciples were not of the world in the sense of their having accepted Christ's teachings which required the rejection of the world's value-judgments, the repudiation of its standards, and the denial of lordship to the world's prince, Satan. This was more than enough to justify Jesus' statement that the apostles were not of this world.
The first Christians did not get evolved in politics, wars, voting ect search?q=the+first+Christians+did+not

 
I have given them thy word; and the world hated them, because they are not of the world, even as I am not of the world.

The frequent use of the singular noun where the divine word is concerned is significant. Though consisting of many words (John 17:8), the word of God is nevertheless one. It is one in that it is a single composite corpus of teaching. It is one in authority, trustworthiness, and saving efficacy, it is the one word delivered by God to Christ, by Christ to the apostles, and by the apostles to all mankind by means of their book, the New Testament. It is one word in the sense that no human teaching may be mixed with it or added to it. It is one word in the sense that "every word" of it is a necessary part of the whole, making it imperative that nothing be added to or taken from the teaching of God (Revelation 22:18,19).

The world hated them ...
Jesus' heart is moved by the bitter trials he foresees falling upon the beloved apostles. Their task will not be easy. "The world hated them" is prophetic. Jesus had already warned them; but it was still a matter of acute concern to Jesus who poured out his heart for them in this prayer.

 

John 17:13 to 22 Open Underlined Links

 13 But now, Im coming to You, and Im saying these things in the world, so they can be filled with my joy. 14 To them Ive given Your Words, because they are hated by the world, for they are no a part of this world, as Im not a part of the world.

15 Im not asking You to take them from the world, and to guard them because of the Wicked One. 16 For, they are no part of the world, just as Im no part of the world.

17 Make them holy in the truth, and Your Word is the truth. 18 As You sent me into the world, Im sending them into the world. 19 Im making myself something holy for them, so they can be holy in truth.

20 And Im not just asking for these. [Im asking that] all who say they believe, 21 may also be in unity, (just as You, Father, are united with me, and Im united with You), that they can be united with us, so the world can believe that You sent me.

22 Ive given them the glory that You gave me, so they can be united as we are united 23 I in them and You in me, so they can be perfected into one, and the world may know that You sent me, and that You love them as You love me. http://www.2001translation.com/

 

 

 

What does In Mean?

The Greek word en simply means in. However, it is translates as in, one, in union with, and as other words, depending on the context. Especially in the book of John do we find the question raised, was Jesus really the same person as the God? This question is raised because the text at John 10:38 literally says, in order that you should know and you may be knowing that in (en) me the Father and I in (en) the Father.

The text above is often translated as, I and my father are one. Is this the true sense of what John wrote? Is Jesus in or one with (the same as) the Father? That could be a correct translation however, not in the context of the way the book of John was written. For example, notice how John 14:20 reads literally, In that the day you will know that I in (en) the Father of me, and you in (en) me, and I in (en) you.

So, if John 10:38 means that Jesus is the same person as his Father, then John 14:20 means that all of Jesus followers are the same person and that they are also the same persons as Jesus and his Father. Is this a logical conclusion? No, because it doesnt harmonize with numerous other scriptures that show his followers to be individuals, but at one with (or in unity with) Jesus and God. http://www.2001translation.com/JOHN.htm#_What_does_In_Mean?

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