SatansID- SimpleBibleTruths.net--The
Alternative to Mysticism
The Reference
Library+ The Library Page For
Satan’s ID
SBT1-
It is appropriate that the heavenly name of the great Opposer and Slanderer of
God is never given in the Bible.
However, several terms (and one
mistakenly) have been used to describe him. Here is a list of those
descriptions:
Satan: This is a Hebrew word meaning,
opposer, resistor, a smart person who does things to serve his own interests, and/or a person who can’t be fooled. It was
applied to the Evil One because of his opposition to God. To prevent people
from thinking of it as a name, it is translated as ‘the Opposer’ herein.
Devil: This is the only Greek word (Diabolos) used in
the Bible to describe the evil one. The first part of the word, dia, means
through. Bolos means throw (it’s
where we get the English words ball
and bowl). So, Devil means one who
throws through, which implied Slanderer in
Greek, so that’s the way it’s translated herein.
Lucifer is a Hebrew word, but it isn’t
really a name for the Slanderer. This translating error created a myth. A
prophecy found at Isaiah the Fourteenth Chapter is speaking of the King of
Babylon, but these words also seem to be a subtle reference to the Wicked One. So,
an ancient translator took the word lucifer, found in
verse 12, and rather than translating it correctly as ‘shining one,’ or ‘son of
the dawn,’ he just left the word untranslated,
because he assumed Lucifer to be the proper name of the Slanderer. It isn’t.
Beelzebub: There are eight references in
the Bible to this Hebrew word, and it does refer to the Slanderer. However,
once again, this is not a proper name. It appears to be a title. Beel (like Baal)
means Lord. Zebub
appears to refer to flies (the insects). So, Beelzebub likely means Lord of Flies.
Is the Opposer
(Slanderer or Beelzebub) a real person? All one has to do is look at the titles
he was given above to realize that he is. To deny his existence negates the
rest of the Bible. For example, when dealing with Adam’s sin, why did God
adhere so closely to a law when other options were available to Him? Why didn’t
he just destroy rebellious Adam and create another man?
The fact is, He created men and
His messengers with the ability to choose whether to serve Him or not, so none
are automatons. And as a man failed in the Paradise of Pleasure, we can assume
(and the Scriptures support) that there were failures (and rebels) in the
heavens also. This is the reason why it became necessary to have a law
that clearly outlined what rebellion against God constituted, and what the
consequences of violating that law would be. It was obviously for the sake of
the millions of millions of heavenly spirit (breath) creatures that the issue
of rebellion here on the earth had to be resolved by legal means, and in a way
that demonstrated the love and loyalty of God’s first-born son, which resulted
in the painful need for a ‘ransom’ (Jesus’ death).
And other questions are raised.
For example, while Jesus was being tempted in the desert, was he simply
struggling with the bad inside himself
rather than against a real, evil personality? If so, we would have to conclude
that there was bad in Jesus.
Also, was the battle in heaven,
as spoken of at Revelation the Twelfth Chapter, just figurative and not a real
war against the Opposer and his messengers? If so,
then ‘evil thoughts’ were rampant in
heaven prior to that battle. And, in what sense would ‘the Opposer’ and his ‘messengers’ have lost the battle and have
been confined to the earth? Also, why would internal evil be ‘angry’ in knowing
that he just has ‘a short period of time left?’
And lastly, when the Opposer entered God’s presence and spoke to Him (Job the
First Chapter), can we assume that this inherent evil
was found in God? That isn’t likely
Another Reference
http://www.bibletexts.com/qa/qa018.htm
Question/insight #18: "It is my understanding that
the early Hebrews did not have the concepts for Lucifer, satan, hell, angels, devil, and that they learned
these things from the Zoroastrians when in captivity in
Response #18:
This is largely correct, but some clarification might be helpful. You mentioned the terms "Lucifer, satan, hell, angels, devil." Below are some comments on each of these.
LUCIFER: "Lucifer" in the KJV simply means "morning star" and refers to the King of Babylon, though traditionally erroneously associated with Satan. Harper's Bible Dictionary (San Francisco: Harper and Row, 1985) writes:
Lucifer, the English translation in the kjv (Isa. 14:12) of the Hebrew word meaning 'light bringer' or 'shining one,' sometimes designating the morning (or day) star, that is, Venus (cf. rsv: 'Day Star'). The English word 'Lucifer' comes from the Latin for 'light bearer.' In Isa. 14:12, the King of Babylon, in an apparent reference to Canaanite mythology, is tauntingly called 'Day Star, son of Dawn' because he has fallen from his lofty but temporary position of power. In the Christian church, this passage from Isaiah came to be connected with Jesus' saying in Luke 10:18: 'I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.' Thus the connection was made (erroneously) between Lucifer and Satan, and Lucifer was popularly understood as another name for Satan.
SATAN and DEVIL: Satan (Hebrew: satan, Greek satanas) and the devil (Greek, diabolos) are virtually synonymous terms, as described on the BibleTexts webpage on "Satan" at http://www.bibletexts.com/terms/satan.htm. It should be noted that what the KJV New Testament always incorrectly translates "devils" should have been translated as "demons," not as "devils." This is true for many of the KJV's references to "devil" as well. (All modern translations have made those corrections.)
HELL: In the Old Testament the Hebrew
word translated "hell" in the KJV is "sheol."
In the Greek Old Testament Septuagint (the Bible used by Paul and most of the
early Christian church), more than 100 times "sheol"
is translated "hades." The Greek word
"geheena" is not used at all in the
Septuagint. In the Hebrew Old Testament the
Gehenna, hell or
hellfire. The
word is derived from Hebrew ge-hinnom, meaning '
ANGELS: References to "angels" go all the way back to Genesis and are found throughout the Old Testament. As with "satan" and many other terms, the concept of "angels" continued to evolve in Jewish and Christian literature, especially during the Exile period, to which you referred. Gerhard von Rad in The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, Abridged in One Volume (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1985), writes:
malak [angel] in the OT.
1.
Used for both human and angelic messengers, malak
is often combined with Yahweh to denote a special angelic being: the
"angel of the Lord." This angel has a special commission to help and
guide
2. With the angel of the Lord are other heavenly beings, though these are seldom called angels. Forming God's entourage, they seem to have no autonomous functions and are in no sense objects of worship.
3.
Angelology increased after the exile, perhaps under outside influences, or to
maintain the divine transcendence. In Job the angels, who are not wholly pure (
God’s First Laws --http://www.2001translation.com/God's%20Laws%20&%20Principles.htm
Return To Index www.simplebibletruths.net
Return To Index www.simplebibletruths.net