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It is appropriate that the heavenly name of the great Opposer and Slanderer of GOD is never given in the Bible.
However, several terms (and one mistakenly) have been used to describe him. Here is a list of those descriptions:
Satan: This is a Hebrew word meaning, opposer, resistor, a smart person who does things to serve his own interests, and/or a person who canít be fooled. It was applied to the Evil One because of his opposition to God. To prevent people from thinking of it as a name, it is translated as ĎtheOpposerí herein.
Devil: This is the only Greek word (Diabolos) used in the Bible to describe the evil one. The first part of the word, dia, means through. Bolos means throw (itís where we get the English words ball and bowl). So, Devil means one who throws through, which implied Slanderer in Greek, so thatís the way itís translated herein.
Lucifer is a Hebrew word, but it isnít really a name for the Slanderer. This translating error created a myth. A prophecy found at Isaiah the Fourteenth Chapter is speaking of the King of Babylon, but these words also seem to be a subtle reference to the Wicked One. So, an ancient translator took the word lucifer, found in verse 12, and rather than translating it correctly as Ďshining one,í or Ďson of the dawn,í he just left the word untranslated, because he assumed Lucifer to be the proper name of the Slanderer. It isnít.
Beelzebub: There are eight references in the Bible to this Hebrew word, and it does refer to the Slanderer. However, once again, this is not a proper name. It appears to be a title. Beel (like Baal) means Lord. Zebub appears to refer to flies (the insects). So, Beelzebub likely means Lord of Flies.
Is the Opposer (Slanderer or Beelzebub) a real person? All one has to do is look at the titles he was given above to realize that he is. To deny his existence negates the rest of the Bible. For example, when dealing with Adamís sin, why did God adhere so closely to a law when other options were available to Him? Why didnít he just destroy rebellious Adam and create another man?
The fact is, He created men and His messengers with the ability to choose whether to serve Him or not, so none are automatons. And as a man failed in the Paradise of Pleasure, we can assume (and the Scriptures support) that there were failures (and rebels) in the heavens also. This is the reason why it became necessary to have a law that clearly outlined what rebellion against God constituted, and what the consequences of violating that law would be. It was obviously for the sake of the millions of millions of heavenly spirit (breath) creatures that the issue of rebellion here on the earth had to be resolved by legal means, and in a way that demonstrated the love and loyalty of Godís first-born son, which resulted in the painful need for a Ďransomí (Jesusí death).
And other questions are raised. For example, while Jesus was being tempted in the desert, was he simply struggling with the bad inside himself rather than against a real, evil personality? If so, we would have to conclude that there was bad in Jesus.
Also, was the battle in heaven, as spoken of at Revelation the Twelfth Chapter, just figurative and not a real war against the Opposer and his messengers? If so, then Ďevil thoughtsí were rampant in heaven prior to that battle. And, in what sense would Ďthe Opposerí and his Ďmessengersí have lost the battle and have been confined to the earth? Also, why would internal evil be Ďangryí in knowing that he just has Ďa short period of time left?í
And lastly, when the Opposer entered Godís presence and spoke to Him (Job the First Chapter), can we assume that this inherent evil was found in God? That isnít likely
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#18 - Lucifer, satan,
hell, angels, devil: Are these terms from captivity in
by Robert Nguyen Cramer
This BibleTexts website administrator has very much enjoyed questions and insights that have been emailed to him ever since this site was launched in September of 1996. On this page I share withBibleTexts browsers a few of the questions, insights, and responses, so that we all can further learn from and with each other.
#18: "It is my
understanding that the early Hebrews did not have the concepts for Lucifer, satan,
hell, angels, devil, and that they learned these things from the Zoroastrians
when in captivity in
This is largely correct, but some clarification might be helpful. You mentioned the terms "Lucifer, satan, hell, angels, devil." Below are some comments on each of these.
LUCIFER: "Lucifer" in the KJV simply means "morning star" and refers to the King of Babylon, though traditionally erroneously associated with Satan. Harper's Bible Dictionary (San Francisco: Harper and Row, 1985) writes:
Lucifer, the English translation in the kjv (Isa. 14:12) of the Hebrew word meaning 'light bringer' or 'shining one,' sometimes designating the morning (or day) star, that is, Venus (cf. rsv: 'Day Star'). The English word 'Lucifer' comes from the Latin for 'light bearer.' In Isa. 14:12, the King of Babylon, in an apparent reference to Canaanite mythology, is tauntingly called 'Day Star, son of Dawn' because he has fallen from his lofty but temporary position of power. In the Christian church, this passage from Isaiah came to be connected with Jesus' saying in Luke 10:18: 'I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.' Thus the connection was made (erroneously) between Lucifer and Satan, and Lucifer was popularly understood as another name for Satan.
SATAN and DEVIL: Satan (Hebrew: satan, Greek satanas) and the devil (Greek, diabolos) are virtually synonymous terms, as described on the BibleTexts webpage on "Satan" athttp://www.bibletexts.com/terms/satan.htm. It should be noted that what the KJV New Testament always incorrectly translates "devils" should have been translated as "demons," not as "devils." This is true for many of the KJV's references to "devil" as well. (All modern translations have made those corrections.)
HELL: In the Old Testament the Hebrew word translated "hell" in
the KJV is "sheol." In the Greek Old
Testament Septuagint (the Bible used by Paul and most of the early Christian
church), more than 100 times "sheol" is translated
"hades." The Greek word
"geheena" is not used at all
in the Septuagint. In the Hebrew Old Testament the
or hellfire. The word is derived from
Hebrew ge-hinnom, meaning '
ANGELS: References to "angels" go all the way back to Genesis and are found throughout the Old Testament. As with "satan" and many other terms, the concept of "angels" continued to evolve in Jewish and Christian literature, especially during the Exile period, to which you referred. Gerhard von Rad in The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, Abridged in One Volume (Grand Rapids:Eerdmans, 1985), writes:
malak [angel] in the OT.
1. Used for both human and angelic messengers, malak is often combined with Yahweh to denote a special angelic being:
the "angel of the Lord." This angel has a special commission to help
2. With the angel of the Lord are other heavenly beings, though these are seldom called angels. Forming God's entourage, they seem to have no autonomous functions and are in no sense objects of worship.
3. Angelology increased after the exile, perhaps under outside
influences, or to maintain the divine transcendence. In Job the angels, who are
not wholly pure (-18), witness creation
(38:7), and help in time of need (5:1). In Ezekiel and Zechariah they are
interpreters (Ezek. 40:3ff.). Daniel depicts opposing heavenly forces; Michael
is the angel of
Godís First Laws --http://www.2001translation.com/God's%20Laws%20&%20Principles.htm
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